UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION

UPSC Prelims 2024 PYQs

Explore the complete 2024 General Studies Paper-I Previous Year Questions with answers, explanations and topic-wise classification.

100Questions

100Published Questions

100Questions with Answer

0Dropped / No Answer

9Subjects

SUBJECT-WISE VIEW

2024 Question Distribution

Polity & Governance22

Geography19

Economy16

Environment & Ecology12

Science & Technology11

History8

International Relations6

Art & Culture4

Agriculture2

COMPLETE QUESTION BANK

2024 GS Paper-I Questions

100 Questions

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement?

International RelationsIndia & Neighboursdifficult

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Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Science & TechnologyBiotechnologymoderate

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With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration: 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceParliamentLok Sabhadifficult

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With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceParliamentBillsdifficult

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With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceParliamentLok Sabhadifficult

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Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

International RelationsRegional Organizationsdifficult

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Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement?

International RelationsGeopoliticsmoderate

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With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Polity & GovernanceGovernancedifficult

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With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialties can volunteer to provide service at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceRights & Welfaremoderate

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Q10

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Polity & GovernanceRights & Welfaremoderate

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Q11

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 1. Provisions will come into effect from 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Polity & GovernanceRights & Welfaredifficult

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Q12

Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operation was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below:

International RelationsGeopoliticsmoderate

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Q13

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Polity & GovernanceJudiciarySupreme Courtmoderate

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Q14

Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceConstitutionConstitutional Featuresdifficult

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Q15

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceGovernancedifficult

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Q16

Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

International RelationsGeopoliticsmoderate

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Q17

Consider the following pairs: Country — Reason for being in the news: 1. Argentina — Worst economic crisis; 2. Sudan — War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces; 3. Turkey — Rescinded its membership of NATO. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

International RelationsGeopoliticsdifficult

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Q18

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and Natural gas shipments to Europe. Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

GeographyWorld GeographyEconomic Regionsdifficult

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Q19

Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

GeographyPhysical GeographyOceansmoderate

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Q20

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of Sulphur dioxide emissions?

Environment & EcologyPollutionmoderate

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Q21

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Bodiesmoderate

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Q22

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceConstitutionConstitutional Amendmentsmoderate

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Q23

Consider the following pairs: Party — Its Leader: 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee; 2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari; 3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram; 4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev. How many of the above are correctly matched?

HistoryModern IndiaIndian National Congressdifficult

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Q24

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceConstitutionConstitutional Amendmentsmoderate

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Q25

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

Polity & GovernanceFederalismmoderate

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Q26

Under Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Polity & GovernanceRights & Welfaremoderate

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Q27

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee. 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs. 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-Service matters. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceGovernancedifficult

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Q28

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

Science & TechnologyDefence Technologymoderate

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Q29

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

GeographyHuman GeographyPopulation Geographymoderate

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Q30

Which of the following Statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceParliamentParliamentary Committeesdifficult

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Q31

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

HistoryModern IndiaConstitutional Developmentmoderate

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Q32

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HistoryModern IndiaConstitutional Developmentdifficult

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Q33

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

Art & CultureArt & CultureLiteraturemoderate

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Q34

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

Art & CultureArt & CultureReligion & Philosophydifficult

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Q35

Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Bodhgaya Temple Complex at Bodhgaya. How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

Art & CultureArt & CultureUNESCO Heritagemoderate

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Q36

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceConstitutionConstitutional Amendmentsdifficult

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Q37

Consider the following countries: 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeri 4. South Korea 5. South Africa. Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

Polity & GovernanceRights & Welfaredifficult

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Q38

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceParliamentMoney Billdifficult

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Q39

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? 1. Brigadier — Air Commodore — Commander; 2. Major General — Air Vice Marshal — Vice Admiral; 3. Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander; 4. Lieutenant Colonel — Group Captain — Captain. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Science & TechnologyDefence Technologymoderate

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Q40

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Polity & GovernanceStatutory & Regulatory Bodiesdifficult

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Q41

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

EconomyPublic Financedifficult

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Q42

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

EconomyMoney & BankingCommercial Banksdifficult

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Q43

Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee: 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct?

EconomyMoney & BankingDigital Paymentsdifficult

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Q44

With reference to Ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets? 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

HistoryArt & CultureReligion & Philosophymoderate

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Q45

Consider the following information: Archaeological site — State — Description: 1. Chandraketugarh — Odisha — Trading Port town; 2. Inamgaon — Maharashtra — Chalcolithic site; 3. Mangadu — Kerala — Megalithic site; 4. Salihundam — Andhra Pradesh — Rock-cut cave shrines. In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

HistoryAncient IndiaAncient Indian Societydifficult

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Q46

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

HistoryMedieval IndiaVijayanagara Empiremoderate

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Q47

With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. 2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HistoryModern IndiaLand Revenue Systemsdifficult

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Q48

Consider the following statements: 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HistoryAncient IndiaVedic Agemoderate

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Q49

Consider the following statements: 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

EconomyExternal Sectordifficult

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Q50

Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

Art & CultureArt & CultureUNESCO Heritagemoderate

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Q51

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

EconomyBasic EconomicsEconomic Developmentmoderate

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Q52

Consider the following statements: 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

EconomyBasic EconomicsEconomic Developmentdifficult

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Q53

In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

EconomyFinancial Marketsdifficult

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Q54

Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap. Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

EconomyFinancial Marketsdifficult

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Q55

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Economic activity — Sector: 1. Storage of agricultural produce — Secondary; 2. Dairy farm — Primary; 3. Mineral exploration — Tertiary; 4. Weaving cloth — Secondary. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

EconomyBasic EconomicsEconomic Developmentmoderate

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Q56

Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste. Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

EconomyFinancial Marketsdifficult

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Q57

With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs: 1. Farmer's plough — Working capital; 2. Computer — Fixed capital; 3. Yarn used by the weaver — Fixed capital; 4. Petrol — Working capital. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

EconomyBasic EconomicsEconomic Growthmoderate

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Q58

Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?

Science & TechnologyInformation Technologymoderate

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Q59

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements: 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

EconomyMoney & BankingCommercial Banksdifficult

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Q60

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

EconomyIndustry & Infrastructuredifficult

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Q61

With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Science & TechnologySpace Technologydifficult

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Q62

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Science & TechnologySpace Technologydifficult

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Q63

Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

Science & TechnologyBiologyHuman Biologymoderate

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Q64

Consider the following activities: 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals. In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

Science & TechnologyDefence Technologydifficult

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Q65

Consider the following aircraft: 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1. How many of above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

Science & TechnologyDefence Technologymoderate

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Q66

In which of the following are hydrogels used? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of Industrial lubricants. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Science & TechnologyEmerging Technologiesdifficult

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Q67

Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

Science & TechnologyBiologyCell Biologymoderate

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Q68

Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

EconomyIndustry & Infrastructuremoderate

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Q69

"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:

Environment & EcologyPollutionmoderate

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Q70

With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of:

EconomyBasic EconomicsGDPmoderate

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Q71

The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

Environment & EcologyBiodiversitySpecies Diversitymoderate

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Q72

Consider the following statements: Statement-1: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-2: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Environment & EcologyPollutionmoderate

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Q73

Consider the following pairs: Country — Animal found in its natural habitat: 1. Brazil — Indri; 2. Indonesia — Elk; 3. Madagascar — Bonobo. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Environment & EcologyBiodiversitySpecies Diversitymoderate

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Q74

Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization: 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Polity & GovernanceGovernancedifficult

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Q75

Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Environment & EcologyBiodiversityFood Chaindifficult

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Q76

Which one of the following is the correct description of 100 Million Farmers?

AgricultureAgricultural Technologydifficult

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Q77

Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units. How many of the above are considered ‘distributed Energy Resources’?

EconomyIndustry & Infrastructuredifficult

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Q78

Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

Environment & EcologyEcologyEcosystemdifficult

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Q79

Consider the following: 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs. How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

Environment & EcologyBiodiversitySpecies Diversitymoderate

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Q80

Consider the following: 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders. How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

GeographyPhysical GeographyGeomorphologydifficult

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Q81

Consider the following airports: 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport. In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield project?

GeographyEconomic Geographymoderate

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Q82

With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below:

GeographyPhysical GeographyAtmospheric Circulationdifficult

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Q83

Consider the following description: 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm-250 cm. What is this type of climate?

GeographyPhysical GeographyClimatologymoderate

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Q84

With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below:

GeographyPhysical GeographyAtmospheric Circulationmoderate

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Q85

On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 Hours? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

GeographyPhysical GeographyClimatologydifficult

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Q86

One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years’ worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuel; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes the region?

Environment & EcologyClimate ChangeGlobal Warmingdifficult

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Q87

With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Environment & EcologyPollutiondifficult

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Q88

Consider the following: 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Wasps. Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

Environment & EcologyConservationCommunity Conservationdifficult

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Q89

Consider the following plants: 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean. How many of the above belong to the pea family?

AgricultureCropsmoderate

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Q90

Consider the following statement: Statement-1: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-2: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Environment & EcologyBiodiversitySpecies Diversitydifficult

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Q91

Consider the following statements: Statement-1: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-2: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

GeographyPhysical GeographyAtmospheric Circulationdifficult

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Q92

Consider the following statements: Statement-1: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-2: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

GeographyPhysical GeographyOcean Currentsmoderate

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Q93

Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds. How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

GeographyPhysical GeographyVolcanoesmoderate

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Q94

Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below:

GeographyPhysical GeographyOcean Currentsdifficult

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Q95

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

GeographyEconomic Geographymoderate

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Q96

With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

GeographyIndian GeographyHimalayasdifficult

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Q97

Consider the following statements: Statement-1: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-2: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-3: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

GeographyPhysical GeographyClimatologydifficult

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Q98

Consider the following countries: 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia. How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

GeographyWorld GeographyLakesmoderate

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Q99

Consider the following information: Waterfall — Region — River: 1. Dhuandhar — Malwa — Narmada; 2. Hundru — Chota Nagpur — Subarnarekha; 3. Gersoppa — Western Ghats — Netravati. How many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

GeographyIndian GeographyIndian Riversdifficult

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Q100

Consider the following information: Region — Name of the mountain range — Type of mountain: 1. Central Asia — Vosges — Fold mountain; 2. Europe — Alps — Block mountain; 3. North America — Appalachians — Fold mountain; 4. South America — Andes — Fold mountain. In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

GeographyPhysical GeographyMountainsdifficult

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